Thursday, March 13, 2008


A common PuSH'er meme is "Look at any industrialized nation that has gun control and we see lower homicide rates."

Is this universally true? Is Russia not industrialized? They have a homicide rate 4X that of the US. Mexico? 3X. South Africa? 10X. All three have strict gun control and are considered industrialized.

Perhaps they use a different definition to determine whether a country is "industrialized" or not? Is there a list of objective qualifications out there that they use?

Why do they have to include the qualifier "industrialized" at all? Does that make them "more like us"? Does "industrialization" somehow instill improved moral values? What about the countries that aren't industrialized? Are the citizens of these somehow less developed morally and ethically than the others?

That sure seems like a discriminatory way to defend ones ideology.


K-Romulus said...

Simple: Industrialized = majority white people.

K-Romulus said...

I mean, that seems to be the meaning of the code word the use. Oh, yeah - "rich" is included as "industrialized," too.

Texas gun nut said...

I think that when the anti's say that, they basically mean the U.K. but they don't want to use the same example twice.
It is unfortunate (and ironic) that many of these people also admire the U.K. and want to turn us into a mirror image of it.